Hello:
In this topic it is said that:
"A phlebotomy of one pint of blood will generally lower hematocrit by about 3 percent"
https://ift.tt/2Kjtucp
A reduction of a 3% was that I was expecting to happen.
15 June I had a blood test and my hematocrit was at 54.7%. Just after the test I had a blood phlebotomy of 500 ml (near a pint).
25 June I had a second blood test and my hema is 49%.
It means that with a 500 ml blood extraction my hematocrit has reduced a 5.7%. I think that is a reduction too much big, isn't it??
Could it be any problem with one of the two laboratory measurements??? It seems very strange to me such a big reduction.
I would appreciate very much the experiences of some users.
Thank you.
In this topic it is said that:
"A phlebotomy of one pint of blood will generally lower hematocrit by about 3 percent"
https://ift.tt/2Kjtucp
A reduction of a 3% was that I was expecting to happen.
15 June I had a blood test and my hematocrit was at 54.7%. Just after the test I had a blood phlebotomy of 500 ml (near a pint).
25 June I had a second blood test and my hema is 49%.
It means that with a 500 ml blood extraction my hematocrit has reduced a 5.7%. I think that is a reduction too much big, isn't it??
Could it be any problem with one of the two laboratory measurements??? It seems very strange to me such a big reduction.
I would appreciate very much the experiences of some users.
Thank you.
from ExcelMale.com https://ift.tt/2KsnHNy
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